User:IssaRice/Linear algebra/Linear transformation vs matrix views: Difference between revisions

From Machinelearning
No edit summary
No edit summary
Line 11: Line 11:
I think the root of the confusion is that for these invariant properties, it is possible to define them given either the matrix or the map. So then there are two definitions floating around, and i don't see people showing them equivalent in general.
I think the root of the confusion is that for these invariant properties, it is possible to define them given either the matrix or the map. So then there are two definitions floating around, and i don't see people showing them equivalent in general.


we can think of a linear map as an equivalence class of matrices. or we can think of a matrix as an equivalence class of linear maps. then we can phrase these invariance results as basically saying that these properties are well-defined.
we can think of a linear map as an equivalence class of matrices. or we can think of a matrix as an equivalence class of linear maps. then we can phrase these invariance results as basically saying that these properties are well-defined. the difference seems to be that here we want to show equivalence, so we need to do it in both directions (?).


the actual proofs are pretty tedious (is my guess)
the actual proofs are pretty tedious (is my guess)

Revision as of 22:23, 27 June 2019

Given an m×n matrix A we can define a linear map T:RnRm by T(x)=Ax.

Given a linear map T:VW, it is not immediately possible to get a corresponding matrix. We must choose some basis v1,,vn for V and a basis w1,,wm for W. Then we can get a matrix by setting the kth column to be Tvk written in the basis w1,,wm.

We would hope that any property we attribute to a linear map is invariant of the matrix we use to represent it. For instance if T:VW is called "injective" then it should be injective regardless of what matrix we use. Similarly given any matrix that is injective, any of the possible linear maps that that matrix represents should be injective.

Examples of other properties like this: injective, surjective, bijective, rank, diagonalizable

On the other hand, a property like "the sum of the columns is equal to such and such" is not invariant

I think the root of the confusion is that for these invariant properties, it is possible to define them given either the matrix or the map. So then there are two definitions floating around, and i don't see people showing them equivalent in general.

we can think of a linear map as an equivalence class of matrices. or we can think of a matrix as an equivalence class of linear maps. then we can phrase these invariance results as basically saying that these properties are well-defined. the difference seems to be that here we want to show equivalence, so we need to do it in both directions (?).

the actual proofs are pretty tedious (is my guess)

let's run with injectivity as an example.

Definition. A linear map T:VW is injective iff Tv=Tu implies v=u for all v,uV.

Definition. An m×n matrix A is injective iff Ax=Ay implies x=y for all x,yRn.

We want to say that these are basically the same thing. How do we express that? Some ideas:

(1) if T is injective and β,γ are any bases, then A:=[T]βγ is injective

(2) if A is injective and β,γ are any bases are any bases, then for any T such that A=[T]βγ we have that T is injective

I think these can be combined into:

(3) for all T,A,β,γ such that A=[T]βγ: T injective iff A injective.