User:IssaRice/Extreme value theorem: Difference between revisions

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Let <math>M = \sup\{f(x) : a \leq x \leq b\} = \sup V_b</math> (this number exists by the boundedness theorem) and <math>X = \{x \in [a,b] : \sup V_x < M\}</math>.<ref group="note">If we had used "<math>\leq</math>" in the definition of <math>X</math>, then when we take the supremum we would just end up with <math>b</math>, regardless of where <math>f</math> achieves the maximum.</ref>
Let <math>M = \sup\{f(x) : a \leq x \leq b\} = \sup V_b</math> (this number exists by the boundedness theorem) and <math>X = \{x \in [a,b] : \sup V_x < M\}</math>.<ref group="note">If we had used "<math>\leq</math>" in the definition of <math>X</math>, then when we take the supremum we would just end up with <math>b</math>, regardless of where <math>f</math> achieves the maximum.</ref>


Our goal now is to find some <math>x</math> such that <math>f(x) = M</math>. The idea now is to locate the leftmost point where <math>f</math> attains <math>M</math> by taking the supremum of <math>X</math>. But we have a small problem, which is that <math>X</math> might be empty (it is however always bounded, so we don't need to worry about that part). This can happen if <math>f(a) = M</math>. But if that's the case, we have already found a point where <math>f</math> equals <math>M</math>, so we're actually done!
Our goal now is to find some <math>x</math> such that <math>f(x) = M</math>. The idea now is to locate the leftmost point where <math>f</math> attains <math>M</math> by taking the supremum of <math>X</math>. But we have a small problem, which is that <math>X</math> might be empty (it is however always bounded, so we don't need to worry about that part). This can happen if <math>f(a) = M</math>, in which case <math>\sup V_a = M</math>. But if that's the case, we have already found a point where <math>f</math> equals <math>M</math>, so we're actually done!


So now suppose <math>f(a) < M</math>. Then <math>a \in X</math>. We already know that <math>X</math> is bounded above, for instance by the number <math>b</math>. We can thus take the least upper bound of <math>X</math>, say <math>c = \sup X</math>. We already know <math>f(c) \leq M</math>, so if we can just eliminate the possibility that <math>f(c) < M</math>, we will be done.
So now suppose <math>f(a) < M</math>. Then <math>a \in X</math>. We already know that <math>X</math> is bounded above, for instance by the number <math>b</math>. We can thus take the least upper bound of <math>X</math>, say <math>c = \sup X</math>. We already know <math>f(c) \leq M</math>, so if we can just eliminate the possibility that <math>f(c) < M</math>, we will be done.

Revision as of 04:47, 29 July 2019

Working through the proof in Pugh's book by filling in the parts he doesn't talk about.

For x∈[a,b], define Vx=f([a,x])={f(t):a≤t≤x} to be the values that f takes on as the input ranges from a to x (inclusive).

Let M=sup{f(x):a≤x≤b}=supVb (this number exists by the boundedness theorem) and X={x∈[a,b]:supVx<M}.[note 1]

Our goal now is to find some x such that f(x)=M. The idea now is to locate the leftmost point where f attains M by taking the supremum of X. But we have a small problem, which is that X might be empty (it is however always bounded, so we don't need to worry about that part). This can happen if f(a)=M, in which case supVa=M. But if that's the case, we have already found a point where f equals M, so we're actually done!

So now suppose f(a)<M. Then a∈X. We already know that X is bounded above, for instance by the number b. We can thus take the least upper bound of X, say c=supX. We already know f(c)≤M, so if we can just eliminate the possibility that f(c)<M, we will be done.

So suppose f(c)<M. We want to find M′<M such that f(t)≤M′ for all t∈[a,c]. That would mean that supVc≤M′<M. To do this, we split the interval into two parts. Choose ϵ>0 with ϵ<M−f(c).[note 2] By continuity at c, there exists a δ>0 such that |t−c|<δ implies |f(t)−f(c)|<ϵ. So now pick a point like c−δ/2, and split the interval into [a,c−δ/2] and [c−δ/2,c].

  • Since c−δ/2<c, there exists x∈X such that c−δ/2<x (otherwise c−δ/2 would be a smaller upper bound for X). So supVc−δ/2≤supVx<M. This means that f(t)≤supVc−δ/2<M for all t∈[a,c−δ/2].
  • But now if t∈[c−δ/2,c], then |t−c|<δ, so |f(t)−f(c)|<ϵ. This means f(t)<f(c)+ϵ<M.

Now we can choose M′=max{supVc−δ/2,f(c)+ϵ}. Then whatever t∈[a,c] happens to be, we can say f(t)≤M′.[note 3]

If c<b then by continuity we can find points t to the right of c where supVt<M, which contradicts the fact that c is an upper bound of such points.

Therefore, c=b, which implies that M=supVb=supVc<M, a contradiction. So the assumption that f(c)<M was false, and we conclude f(c)=M.

Takeaways

  • "less than" vs "bounded away from"

Notes

  1. ↑ If we had used "≤" in the definition of X, then when we take the supremum we would just end up with b, regardless of where f achieves the maximum.
  2. ↑ It is important here that ϵ does not equal M−f(c); choosing this ϵ would be too weak and we would not be able to conclude supVc<M, rather only that supVc≤M.
  3. ↑ This part of the proof uses quite a bit of "low-level" argumentation, so it can be easy to miss the broader point. The reason we split the interval [a,c] into two parts is that we know two facts about f: (1) near c, continuity shows that f must be close to the value of f(c); since we assumed f(c)<M, this means we can find a neighborhood around c where f is bounded away from M. (2) up to c, our choice of c means the value of f is bounded away from M. Then we pick c−δ/2 as a "handing off point" to pass from one side to the other.