User:IssaRice/Lebesgue theory: Difference between revisions
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* why all the asymmetry in the usual definitions? [https://mathoverflow.net/questions/308856/why-is-lebesgue-measure-theory-asymmetric/308888] | * why all the asymmetry in the usual definitions? [https://mathoverflow.net/questions/308856/why-is-lebesgue-measure-theory-asymmetric/308888] | ||
* why isn't the lebesgue integral defined as the area under the graph? pugh's book does it this way. why is the definition in terms of simple function or the inf thing that axler does in MIRA preferred by textbooks? | * why isn't the lebesgue integral defined as the area under the graph? pugh's book does it this way. why is the definition in terms of simple function or the inf thing that axler does in MIRA preferred by textbooks? | ||
* what would a corresponding "riemann measure" look like for subsets of R^n? | * what would a corresponding "riemann measure" look like for subsets of R^n? is that just the jordan measure? | ||
* why is caratheodory's criterion for measurability defined the way it is? there was a good blog post i saw once that gave a picture but i don't remember if i was fully convinced. | * why is caratheodory's criterion for measurability defined the way it is? there was a good blog post i saw once that gave a picture but i don't remember if i was fully convinced. | ||
* is the only difference between jordan and lebesgue measure that one has finite number of boxes and the other has countably many boxes? | |||
Revision as of 19:47, 14 September 2021
some questions for now:
- why all the asymmetry in the usual definitions? [1]
- why isn't the lebesgue integral defined as the area under the graph? pugh's book does it this way. why is the definition in terms of simple function or the inf thing that axler does in MIRA preferred by textbooks?
- what would a corresponding "riemann measure" look like for subsets of R^n? is that just the jordan measure?
- why is caratheodory's criterion for measurability defined the way it is? there was a good blog post i saw once that gave a picture but i don't remember if i was fully convinced.
- is the only difference between jordan and lebesgue measure that one has finite number of boxes and the other has countably many boxes?