User:IssaRice/Chain rule proofs: Difference between revisions
| Line 143: | Line 143: | ||
Differentiability of <math>g</math> at <math>f(x_0)</math> says that if <math>(y_n)_{n=1}^\infty</math> is a sequence in <math>Y \setminus \{y_0\}</math> that converges to <math>f(x_0)</math>, then <math>\frac{g(y_n) - g(f(x_0))}{y_n - f(x_0)} \to g'(f(x_0))</math> as <math>n \to \infty</math>. What if <math>(y_n)_{n=1}^\infty</math> is instead a sequence in <math>Y</math>? Then we can say <math>\phi(y_n) \to g'(f(x_0))</math> as <math>n\to\infty</math>. | Differentiability of <math>g</math> at <math>f(x_0)</math> says that if <math>(y_n)_{n=1}^\infty</math> is a sequence in <math>Y \setminus \{y_0\}</math> that converges to <math>f(x_0)</math>, then <math>\frac{g(y_n) - g(f(x_0))}{y_n - f(x_0)} \to g'(f(x_0))</math> as <math>n \to \infty</math>. What if <math>(y_n)_{n=1}^\infty</math> is instead a sequence in <math>Y</math>? Then we can say <math>\phi(y_n) \to g'(f(x_0))</math> as <math>n\to\infty</math>. | ||
Differentiability of <math>f</math> at <math>x_0</math> implies continuity of <math>f</math> at <math>x_0</math>, so this means that <math>f(x_n) \to f(x_0)</math> as <math>n \to \infty</math>. Since <math>f(x_n) \in Y</math> for each <math>n \geq 1</math>, we can use <math>(f(x_n))_{n=1}^\infty</math> as our sequence in <math>Y</math> to conclude that as <math>n \to \infty</math> we have <math>\phi(f(x_n)) \to g'(f(x_0))</math>. | |||
Now by the limit laws | Now by the limit laws | ||
Revision as of 23:38, 28 November 2018
Using Newton's approximation
Main idea
The main idea of using Newton's approximation to prove the chain rule is that since f is differentiable at we have the approximation when is near . Similarly since g is differentiable at we have the approximation when is near . Since f is differentiable at , it is continuous there also, so we know that is near whenever is near . This allows us to substitute into whenever is near . So we get
Thus we get , which is what the chain rule says.
Proof
We want to show is differentiable at with derivative . By Newton's approximation, this is equivalent to showing that for every there exists such that
whenever . So let .
Now we do some algebraic manipulation. Write
where . This holds for every . Since we thus have
Similarly write
where .
Substituting the expression for in the expression for we get
we can rewrite this as
Thus our goal now is to show .
But by the triangle inequality it suffices to show .
where we are free to choose .
To get the bound for (using Newton's approximation), we need to make sure is small. But by continuity of at we can do this.
where again we are free to choose .
TODO: can we do this same proof but without using the error term notation?
TODO: somehow Folland does this without explicitly using continuity of f; i need to understand if he's using it implicitly somehow or he's actually proving it when bounding using
old proof
Since is differentiable at , we know is a real number, and we can write
(there is no magic: the terms just cancel out)
If we define we can write
Newton's approximation says that as long as .
Since is differentiable at , we know that it must be continuous at . This means we can keep as long as we keep .
Since and , this means we can substitute and get
Now we use the differentiability of . We can write
Again, we can define and write this as
Now we can substitute this into the expression for to get
where we have canceled out two terms using .
Thus we have
We can write this as
where . Now the left hand side looks like the expression in Newton's approximation. This means to show is differentiable at , we just need to show that .
The stuff in square brackets is our "error term" for . Now we just need to make sure it is small, even after dividing by .
But f is differentiable at , so by Newton's approximation,
we also have
We can bound this from above using the triangle inequality:
Now we can just choose small enough.
Limits of sequences
Main idea
Let be a sequence that converges to .
Now use the limit laws to conclude that the limit is .
The problem is that can be zero even when .
Proof
Let be a sequence in that converges to .
Define a function by
The idea is that we want to say is going to , so we just define it at the undefined points to already be at that limit.
Now we have
for all . (Why? Consider the cases and separately.)
Differentiability of at says that if is a sequence in that converges to , then as . What if is instead a sequence in ? Then we can say as .
Differentiability of at implies continuity of at , so this means that as . Since for each , we can use as our sequence in to conclude that as we have .
Now by the limit laws
Since the sequence was arbitrary, we can conclude that .
TODO: Tao says that division by zero occurs when , which seems strange to me.